Solved by a verified expert:BIO156
Introductory Biology for Allied Health
Final Exam
– Part 1
1
of 45
Mendel’s
law of independent assortment states that __________.
chromosomes
sort independently of each other during mitosis and meiosis
genes
sort independently of each other in animals, but not in plants
independent
sorting of genes produces polyploid plants under some circumstances
each
pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during
gamete formation
None of
the choices are correct
Question
2
of 45
Individual
features of all organisms are the result of __________.
genetics
the
environment
genetics
and cytoplasmic determinants
the
environment and individual needs
genetics
and the environment
Question
3
of 45
How many
sex chromosomes are in a human gamete?
one
two
three
four
five
Question
4
of 45
Any gene
located on a sex chromosome __________.
is
called a recessive gene
is
called a sex-linked gene
is
called a dominant allele
will
exhibit pleiotropy
will
exhibit codominance
Question
5
of 45
Why are
sex-linked conditions more common in men than in women?
Men
acquire two copies of the defective gene during fertilization.
Men
need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be
fully expressed.
Women
simply do not develop the disease regardless of their genetic composition.
The sex
chromosomes are more active in men than in women.
None of
the choices are correct.
Question
6
of 45
A
colorblind woman mates with a man who is not colorblind. All of the sons and
none of the daughters are colorblind. What is the best explanation of this
result?
The
gene for color vision is incompletely dominant to the gene for sex
determination.
The
gene for color vision is completely dominant to the gene for sex
determination.
The
gene for color vision is codominant with the gene for sex determination.
The
gene for color vision is linked to the X chromosome.
The gene
for color vision is linked to the Y chromosome.
Question
7
of 45
Karyotyping
__________.
shows
chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis II
can
reveal alterations in chromosome number
examines
points of crossing over
reveals
the results of independent orientation of chromosomes during meiosis I
reveals
the presence of cancerous genes
Question
8
of 45
If a
chromosome fragment breaks off and is lost from the original chromosome, the
resulting chromosomal abnormality is called an) __________.
deletion
inversion
translocation
nondisjunction
reciprocal
translocation
Question
9
of 45
If short
hair L) is dominant to long hair l), animals LL and Ll
have the same __________.
genotypes
phenotypes
alleles
genes
chromatids
Question
10
of 45
One of
Mendel’s defining ideas was the theory of segregation. This idea __________.
deals
with the alleles governing two different traits
applies
only to linked genes
applies
only to sex-linked genes
explains
the behavior of a pair of alleles during meiosis
applies
to the partitioning of proteins
Question
11
of 45
If short
hair L) is dominant to long hair l), then what fraction of the
offspring produced by a cross of Ll x ll will be homozygous
dominant?
1/2
1/4
1/3
1/8
None
Question
12
of 45
If a
child belonged to blood Type O, he or she could NOT have been produced by which
set of parents?
Type A
mother and Type B father
Type A
mother and Type O father
Type AB
mother and Type O father
Type O
mother and Type O father
Type B
mother and Type O father
Question
13
of 45
Amniocentesis
involves sampling __________.
the
fetus directly
the
fetal cells floating in the amniotic fluid
sperm
blood
cells
urine
Question
14
of 45
Which of
the following genotypes is said to be homozygous?
AaBB
aaBB
aaBb
aABB
Aabb
Question
15
of 45
Which of
the following is NOT a true statement about genes?
Genes
are located on chromosomes.
Genes
are inherited independently of the chromosomes.
Genes
are arranged in linear sequence on chromosomes.
A gene
is a discrete sequence of DNA on a chromosome.
Genes
code for proteins.
Question
16
of 45
A
karyotype __________.
compares
one set of chromosomes to another
is a
visual display of chromosomes arranged according to size
is a
photograph of cells undergoing mitosis during anaphase
of a
normal human cell shows 48 chromosomes
is a
representation of a cell in apoptosis
Question
17
of 45
A woman
heterozygous for colorblindness an X-linked recessive allele marries a man with
normal color vision. What is the probability that their first child will be
colorblind?
25
percent
50 percent
75
percent
100
percent
0
percent
Question
18
of 45
What
could the children of a colorblind woman and a man with normal vision be?
All
will be colorblind.
None
will be colorblind.
Daughters
will be color-blind and sons will be of normal vision.
Sons
will be colorblind and daughters will be of normal vision.
Half of
the sons will be colorblind and all daughters will be colorblind.
Question
19
of 45
DNA
replication __________.
occurs
by the addition of nucleotides to the end of the DNA molecule
results
in the formation of four new DNA strands
produces
two daughter DNA molecules that are complementary to each other
uses
each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand
begins
when two DNA molecules join together to exchange segments
Question
20
of 45
If one
strand of DNA is CGGTAC, the corresponding strand would be __________.
GCCTAG
CGGTAC
GCCAUC
TAACGT
GCCATG
Question
21
of 45
Which one
of the following sequences best describes the flow of information when a gene
directs the synthesis of a cellular component?
RNA ?
DNA ? RNA ? protein
DNA ?
RNA ? protein
protein
? RNA ? DNA
DNA ?
amino acid ? RNA ? protein
DNA ?
tRNA ? mRNA ? protein
Question
22
of 45
Which one
of the following best describes the sequence of events of translation?
codon
recognition ? translocation ? peptide bond formation ? termination
peptide
bond formation ? codon recognition ? translocation ? termination
codon
recognition ? peptide bond formation ? translocation ? termination
codon
recognition ? peptide bond formation ? termination ? translocation
peptide
bond formation ? translocation ? codon recognition ? termination
Question
23
of 45
In DNA,
correct complementary base pairing would occur between __________.
cytosine
and uracil
adenine
and guanine
adenine
and uracil
adenine
and thymine
cytosine
and adenine
Question
24
of 45
Which of
the following is NOT true of DNA polymerase?
Adds
new nucleotides to a developing strand.
Is an
enzyme.
Creates
the energy it needs by breaking adenine-guanine bonds.
Proofreads
DNA strands to see that they are correct.
Is a
protein.
Question
25
of 45
The
movement of DNA fragments in a gel electrophoresis experiment is based on
__________.
the
amount of carbon in the fragment
the
size and charge of the molecules
the
number of organic rings in the fragment
their
ease in going into a salt solution
the
sugars in the fragment
Question
26
of 45
Which of
the following is the most precise explanation of how genes work?
One
gene controls one complete physical characteristic.
Human
metabolic defects may arise because of absent or defective enzymes.
One
gene controls one amino acid.
One
gene codes for the amino acid sequence of one polypeptide chain.
Genes
are made of RNA.
Question
27
of 45
The form
of RNA that carries the code from the DNA to the site where the protein is
assembled is called __________.
messenger
RNA
nuclear
RNA
ribosomal
RNA
transfer
RNA
siRNA
Question
28
of 45
Which
nucleotide base is found in RNA but not in DNA?
thymine
deoxyribose
uracil
guanine
adenine
Question
29
of 45
Transcription
__________.
occurs
on the surface of the ribosome
is the
final process in the assembly of a protein
occurs
during the synthesis of any type of RNA from a DNA template
is
catalyzed by DNA polymerase
occurs
in the mitochondria
Question
30
of 45
Which of
the following could NOT be an RNA transcript?
AUGCGU
ATGCGT
UACGCA
UAGCGU
GGCUAU
Question
31
of 45
Which of
the following kinds of RNA is directly responsible for carrying specific amino
acids to the ribosomes in protein synthesis?
tRNA
hnRNA
rRNA
mRNA
snRNA
Question
32
of 45
What kind
of virus is HIV, the AIDS virus)?
a
herpes virus
a
paramyxovirus
a
retrovirus
a
complex virus
a
provirus
Question
33
of 45
HIV
delivers its greatest damage to __________.
the
adrenal glands
pancreatic
cells
nervous
tissue
gametes
white
blood cells
Question
34
of 45
HIV is
responsible for _____.
PKU
TB
STD
CPR
AIDS
Question
35
of 45
Restriction
enzymes __________.
edit
proteins
cut DNA
at specific sites
stop
transcription
bind
together strands of DNA
bind
RNA fragments together
Question
36
of 45
Gel
electrophoresis sorts DNA molecules on the basis of their __________.
nucleotide
sequence
solubility
in water
ability
to bind to mRNA
solubility
in the gel
size
Question
37
of 45
Which of
the following areas of research will benefit from the human genome project?
understanding
human evolution
understanding
human embryonic development
improving
the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of heart disease, cancer, and other
common ailments
All of
the choices are correct.
None of
the choices are correct.
Question
38
of 45
Which of
the following best defines the term transgenic animal?
an
animal that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele
an
animal in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA
therapy
an
animal containing a gene from a third “parent,” which may even be
another species
an
animal containing genes from both its parents
an
animal containing genes from three or more species
Question
39
of 45
Genetic
variation within a population is developed and maintained because of
__________.
random
mutations
recombination
because of sexual reproduction
crossing
over
All of
the above
None of
these are valid ways of creating variation
Question
40
of 45
The prime
goal of current work in genetic engineering is to __________.
eliminate
antibiotic resistance in bacteria
isolate
disease-causing plasmids in bacteria
modify
cells to correct a defect or produce a functional product
transfer
genes from viruses to other cells
study
only cancer and bring about a cure
Question
41
of 45
Viruses
that infect bacteria are ______.
retroviruses
enveloped
viruses
emerging
viruses
proviruses
bacteriophages
Question
42
of 45
Which of
these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?
humulin
GM
PCR
clones
plasmids
Question
43
of 45
Which of
the following is a major category of animal tissue?
epithelial
plasma
bone
cardiac
neurons
Question
44
of 45
Maintaining
the volume and composition of body fluids is the direct responsibility of which
of the following systems?
integumentary
immune
digestive
urinary
respiratory
Question
45
of 45
Which of
the following organs is NOT in the abdominal cavity?
stomach
liver
intestine
appendix
heart
Part2
1
of 45
The basic
structural and functional part of the kidney is the __________.
Bowman’s
capsule
nephron
glomerulus
urinary
bladder
ascending
aorta
Question
2
of 45
Which one
of the following types of tissue stores fat in the body?
blood
cartilage
bone
adipose
fibrous
connective tissue
Question
3
of 45
Which of
the following is true of a typical skeletal muscle?
Contraction
is involuntary.
It is
found in the walls of organs such as the digestive tract.
Its
fibers do not have a striped appearance under the microscope.
It can
be enlarged by exercise.
It is
only found in heart tissue.
Question
4
of 45
Which
type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?
nervous
blood
epithelial
connective
muscle
Question
5
of 45
Homeostasis
__________.
is the
maintenance of a constant internal state
only
comes into play when you are ill
is a
pathological condition
is the
maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment
is the
way the internal environment influences the external environment
Question
6
of 45
What are
the four fundamental types of body tissues?
connective,
cardiac, nervous, and adipose tissue.
connective,
epithelial, nervous, and muscle tissue.
epithelial,
hormonal, cellular, and bone tissue.
epithelial,
glandular, muscle, and nervous tissue.
connective,
neurons, muscle, and cartilage tissue.
Question
7
of 45
What is
the main function of connective tissue?
support
movement
protection
response
to stimuli
covering
Question
8
of 45
Which of
the following is NOT a function of the skin?
protection
from invasion by bacteria
temperature
regulation
sensing
the world around us
protection
from physical injury
production
of hormones promoting tanning
Question
9
of 45
What are
the two main divisions of the skeletal system?
cranial
and axial
vertebral
and appendicular
appendicular
and axial
axial
and articular
articular
and cranial
Question
10
of 45
Which of
the following carry incoming messages toward the cell body of a neuron?
axons
dendrites
actin
filaments
myosin
filaments
supporting
cells
Question
11
of 45
The four
stages of food processing are, in order:
ingestion,
absorption, elimination, digestion
ingestion,
elimination, digestion, absorption
ingestion,
digestion, absorption, elimination
digestion,
absorption, ingestion, elimination
elimination,
absorption, digestion, ingestion
Question
12
of 45
Once an
action potential is triggered, the first major chemical change is __________.
a
reversal of the membrane polarity, with the interior of the cell becoming positive
a
reversal of the membrane polarity, with the interior of the cell becoming
negative
an
increase in the negative charge inside the neuron
an
increase in the positive charge inside the neuron
propagation
of an impulse
Question
13
of 45
The
function of the sphincter at the downstream end of the stomach is to
__________.
retain
acid chime in the stomach until pepsin digestion is complete
release
bile into the duodenum when chime is present
release
pancreatic secretions into the duodenum when chime is present
release
bile and pancreatic secretions into the duodenum when chime is present
release
acid chime into the duodenum in periodic squirts
Question
14
of 45
Muscles
are connected to bones by ______.
thick
filaments
ligaments
tendons
other
muscles
myofibrils
Question
15
of 45
A thick
filament consists of ______.
actin
actin
and regulatory proteins
myosin
myosin
and regulatory filaments
actin
and myosin
Question
16
of 45
When the
wall of the stomach fails to protect itself from erosion by gastric juice, the
result is __________.
heartburn
reverse
peristalsis
a
duodenal ulcer
nausea
a gastric
ulcer
Question
17
of 45
Most
nutrient absorption occurs in which part of the digestive system?
stomach
liver
pancreas
small
intestine
large
intestine
Question
18
of 45
Which of
the following is a junction between two neurons?
Schwann
cell
Chemical
synapse
Node of
Ranvier
Sodium
gate
Polarity
space
Question
19
of 45
Which of
the following organs of the digestive system is different from the other four
because it does NOT produce any secretions that aid in the digestive process?
stomach
liver
esophagus
pancreas
Important
secretions are released by all of the above organs.
Question
20
of 45
Outnumbering
neurons by up to 50 to 1, which cells protect, insulate, and reinforce neurons?
sensory
cells
motor
cells
axon
cells
satellite
cells
supporting
cells
Question
21
of 45
All veins
carry __________.
blood
toward the heart
interstitial
fluid
blood
away from the heart
oxygen-rich
blood
oxygen-poor
blood
Question
22
of 45
Trace the
path of a red blood cell in a circuit that takes it from the capillary bed of
the right kidney to the capillary bed of the left kidney.
capillary
bed of right kidney….venules….veins….right atrium….right ventricle….pulmonary
arteries….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary veins….left atrium….left
ventricle….aorta….arteries….arterioles…. capillary bed of left kidney
capillary
bed of right kidney….venules….veins….right atrium….right ventricle….
pulmonary veins….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary arteries….left atrium….left
ventricle…..aorta….arteries….arterioles….capillary bed of left kidney
capillary
bed of right kidney….venules….v eins…..left atrium….left ventricle….
pulmonary arteries….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary veins….right atrium….
right ventricle….aorta….arteries…..arterioles….capillary bed of left kidney
capillary
bed of right kidney….arterioles….arteries….aorta….right atrium….right
ventricle….pulmonary arteries….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary veins….left
atrium ….left ventricle….veins….venules….capillary bed of left kidney
capillary
bed of right kidney….venules….veins….left atrium….left ventricle…. pulmonary
veins….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary arteries….right atrium…. right
ventricle….aorta….arteries….arterioles….capillary bed of left kidney
Question
23
of 45
When you
examine fluid that you have drawn from a blood vessel, you find that it is
relatively high in carbon dioxide and waste products. Assuming that the fluid
comes from a healthy individual, you conclude that the blood vessel from which
you have drawn the blood could have been __________.
a
venule
an
artery
an
arteriole
the
aorta
either
an artery or an arteriole
Question
24
of 45
White
blood cells play a particularly important role in __________.
carrying
oxygen
carrying
carbon dioxide
blood
clotting
hemoglobin
transport
fighting
infections
Question
25
of 45
Temperature
regulation, hormone distribution, and exchanging nutrients and wastes with the
interstitial fluid are all functions of the _____ system.
respiratory
digestive
immune
circulatory
nervous
Question
26
of 45
Animals
need oxygen because it __________.
plays a
role in obtaining energy from food
counterbalances
the CO2 in the atmosphere
helps
animals synthesize proteins
is
necessary to make CO2
is
needed to deliver hemoglobin to all the cells in the body
Question
27
of 45
In the
human respiratory system, gas exchange occurs across the cells of the _____.
diaphragm
trachea
bronchi
pharynx
alveoli
Question
28
of 45
When you
hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes leads initially to
the urge to breathe again?
rising
oxygen level
rising
carbon dioxide level
falling
oxygen level
falling
carbon dioxide level
both
rising carbon dioxide level and falling oxygen levels
Question
29
of 45
Which of
the following is one of the body’s first lines of defense against infection?
a group
of nonspecific antibodies
several
nonspecific amino acid toxins
several
nonspecific obstacles such as skin and mucous membranes
increased
production of certain hormones and changes in the blood circulation
an
increasing in the breathing rate
Question
30
of 45
When you
cut yourself, the damaged cells immediately release which of the following
chemical alarm signals?
interferon
complement
histamine
pyrogens
anti-interferon
Question
31
of 45
Why do
diseases involving widespread infection usually result in a fever?
The
rapid multiplication of the invading microorganisms results in extra heat
production.
The
inflammatory and immune responses result in extra heat production.
The
invading microorganisms trick the brain’s temperature control center into
raising the temperature so they can grow better.
The
brain’s temperature control center responds to inflammation by creating a hot
environment unfavorable to microorganisms.
Fevers
insure that you will stay in bed longer so that your body can recover from
the illness.
Question
32
of 45
The
appendix, bone marrow, thymus, and spleen are all parts of the __________
system.
immune
circulatory
excretory
renal
digestive
Question
33
of 45
Antibodies
__________.
are
shaped like the letter B
are
generalists in that any antibody can bind to any antigen
consist
of three polypeptide chains
assist
in destroying particular antigens
All of
the above are true
Question
34
of 45
Hormones
regulate __________.
growth
reproduction
water
balance
metabolism
all of
the above
Question
35
of 45
Which of
the following best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?
They
work together to prepare the body to deal with stress.
Insulin
stimulates the pancreas to secrete glucagon.
High
levels of insulin inhibit pancreatic secretion of glucagon.
They
are antagonistic hormones.
Insulin
is a steroid hormone; glucagon is a protein hormone.
Question
36
of 45
What
moves the human egg through the oviduct?
the
beating of the egg’s cilia
the
beating of the egg’s flagella
rhythmic
contractions of the oviduct
rhythmic
contractions of the uterus
the
beating of cilia in the oviduct
Question
37
of 45
In a
human male reproductive system:
a
circumcision removes a portion of the scrotum.
the vas
deferens conducts sperm between the testis and epididymis.
the
sperm travel through the urethra during ejaculation.
sperm
mature in the prostate gland.
sperm
are produced in the bladder and released through the scrotum.
Question
38
of 45
A vaccine
contains __________.
a
killed pathogen
weakened
pathogen
non-infective
fragments of a pathogen
all of
the above may be used in a vaccine
Vaccines
only contain genetically-modified virus particles
Question
39
of 45
Oxygen
moves from the alveoli to the bloodstream __________.
because
the concentration of oxygen is greater in alveoli than in the blood
mainly
due to the activity of carbonic anhydrase in the red blood cells
because
there is more oxygen in the blood than in the bloodstream
through
active transport through the cell membrane
to
escape from the body as a waste product
Question
40
of 45
Which of
the following is NOT a true statement about the human female?
She
produces all the eggs that she ever will before she is born.
She
will normally produce more gametes than her male counterpart.
It is
possible that more than one egg will be released at ovulation.
The
process of meiosis may take 30 to 50 years to complete.
The
ovary is the primary reproductive organ.
Question
41
of 45
Most of
the oxygen in the blood is transported by __________.
platelets
plasma
platelets
hemoglobin
serotonin
Question
42
of 45
The
correct term to describe the production of the human sperm is __________.
spermogenerator
oogenesis
spermatogenesis
sperm-production
gametogeneric
Question
43
of 45
In vitro
fertilization __________.
can be
used to select the sex of an embryo
permits
the screening of embryos for genetic defects
can use
eggs that have been frozen
all of
the above
none of
the above
Question
44
of 45
A
vasectomy __________.
prevents
the production of sperm in the testes
prevents
the production of semen
prevents
the movement of sperm into the urethra
prevents
a man from having an erection
is an
effective method to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases
Question
45
of 45
Why are
human testes located in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity?
to
shorten the distance that semen must travel during ejaculation
to
shorten the distance that sperm must swim during insemination
so the
testes can be kept at a constant temperature
so the
testes can be kept cooler than the body’s interior
so the
testes can enlarge at sexual maturityPart3What are the
four main types of tissue? What are the characteristics of each type and how do
they function in the body? Give an example of where you would find each type in
the body.
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