Solved by a verified expert:BIOL 103-7380 FINAL EXAM

The following
general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 100
points. Multiple choice questions #1-45 are worth 1 point each. Multiple
choice questions #46-50 are worth 2 points each. Choose 5 of 7 essay
questions #51-57, which are worth 9 points each. Please provide
answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam,
answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please
submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder by 11:59 PM
Eastern Standard Time Sunday 17 April.
As in all
assignments, I trust that your answers are your own work.
GOOD LUCK! Thanks
for taking the course, D Riege
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 45 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that
represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1.
Which of the following includes all the others?
A)
atom B) cell C) organism D) population

2. In science, a hypothesis must be A) testable
B) derived from a theory C) a
known fact
D) able to be proven absolutely true

3. A chlorine atom has 17
protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons.
The atomic number of
chlorine
is A) 8 B) 17
C) 35 D) 52

4. If you place the probe of a pH
meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH
14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutral C)
a base

5. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a
major component of plant cell walls:
A)
glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen

6. Which of these types of molecules contain
nitrogen?
A)
polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids

7. Fats contain more energy per gram than
carbohydrates or proteins because
A)
fat molecules contain a lower percentage of oxygen atoms
B)
fat molecules contain a lower percentage of hydrogen atoms
C)
fat molecules contain a lower percentage of carbon atoms
D)
fat molecules contain a higher percentage of adipose atoms

8. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or
membranous organelles, are found in
A)
animals B) bacteria C) fungi
D) plants

9. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C)
store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins

10. Mitochondria
A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C)
are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins

11. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid
molecules

B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in
which proteins are embedded

C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate
molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and
carbohydrates

12. The movement of molecules from a region of
low concentration across a membrane
to
a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B) diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis

13.
The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B)
cellular respiration C)
photosynthesis D) volcanic eruptions

14. Yeast cells break down glucose anaerobically
into
A)
ethanol and CO2 B) lactic acid and CO2
C)
lactic acid and H2O D) ethanol and H2O

15. Carbon dioxide is released in A) the light-dependent phase of
photosynthesis
B)
the Krebs cycle C) glycolysis D) the Calvin cycle

16. If the concentration of glucose in the water
outside of a cell is lower than the
concentration
inside, A) water will tend to enter
the cell by osmosis B) water will
tend
to leave the cell by osmosis C) glucose
will tend to enter the cell by osmosis D)
glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis

17. What happens if a red blood cell is placed in
a hypertonic solution?
A) the cell will shrink B) the cell will swell and may burst
C)
the cell will remain the same size

18. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of enzymes? A) they
are proteins
B) they speed up the rate of chemical
reactions C) they act on specific
substances called
substrates D) they are used up in each reaction, thus
need to be produced in large quantities

19. Which of these does not
have to be present for photosynthesis to occur?
A)
water B) carbon dioxide C) glucose D) chlorophyll

20. Each new cell produced by this process will
have an identical copy of all
chromosomes
and genes possessed by the parent cell:
A) mitosis B) meiosis

21. During the first division of meiosis, A) chromosomes separate at the
centromere
B)
homologous chromosomes separate C)
chromosomes become triploid

22. If a normal parent and an albino parent have
albino child, the genotypes of the parents are
A) AA x Aa B) Aa x Aa C) Aa x aa D) aa x aa

23. The number of chromosomes in a human egg cell
is A) 4 B) 23
C) 46 D) 48

24. A change in DNA base sequence from CATAC to
CACAC would describe
A)
translation B) replication C) transcription D) mutation

25. Which of these processes does notoccur
in the nucleus?
A)
DNA replication B) transcription C) translation

26. tRNA molecules contain anticodons and carry
amino acids to be used in this process:
A)
mutation B) DNA replication C) transcription D) translation

27. Exchange of genes between maternal and
paternal chromosomes before the first
division
of meiosis is caused by
A)
X-linkage B) crossing over C) replication D) cytokinesis

28. Which is not a subunit of DNA? A) adenine B) guanine
C) uracil D) phosphate

29. A karyotype of an individual with Down
syndrome has how many chromosomes?
A)
3 B) 23 C) 46 D) 47

30. If a heterozygous male mates with an albino
female, what percentage of albino
children
would be expected? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%

31. A father with genotype IAIB and mother with phenotype O could produce
children
with
these blood types: A) AB only B) A and B
only C) A, B, and AB only
D)
A, B, AB, and O

32. During DNA replication, an old DNA strand
with base sequence ATCTGAGTA
would
serve as a template to form a new complementary strand with the base sequence:
A)
TAGACTCAT B) ATCTGAGTA C) AUCUCUGUA

33. In peas, tall (T) is dominant to dwarf (t)
and, on a separate chromosome set, purple
flower
(P) is dominant to white flower (p). If
Gregor Mendel crosses the genotypes TtPp
and
ttPp, what is the expected ratio of phenotypes in the offspring?
A)
9/16 tall purple flowered, 3/16 tall white, 3/16 dwarf purple, 1/16 dwarf white
B)
3/8 tall purple flowered, 1/8 tall white, 3/8 dwarf purple, 1/8 dwarf white
C)
1/4 tall purple flowered, 1/4 tall white, 1/4 dwarf purple, 1/4 dwarf white
D)
3/4 tall purple flowered, 1/4 dwarf white

34. Queen Victoria’s son Leopold had hemophilia,
which is caused by a sex-linked
recessive
gene (Xh). Leopold lived to be 31 years old and fathered
a normal daughter.
What
is the genotype of his daughter?
A) XHXH B) XHXh C) XhXh D) XHY

35.
Microevolution by genetic
drift is more likely in
A) large
populations B) small populations

36. New alleles appear in a
species by A) genetic drift B) mutation
C)
gene flow D) natural selection

37. The insect wing, bat wing, and
bird wing are
A) analogous structures B) homologous structures

38. Speciation is most
likely when a huge continental population of a snail species
A)
undergoes genetic drift B) is forced
north by global warming
C) is divided in two over the eons by the rise
of a mountain range

39. Groups of organisms that interbreed in
nature and are reproductively isolated from
other such
groups defines A) communities B) hybrids
C) families
D) species

40.
Certain species of ants protect, and receive food from, certain species
of acacia trees
in
the tropics. This exemplifies A) predation B) mutualism C) competition

41.
The most important cause of species extinction due to humans in recent
centuries is
A)
disease B) global warming C) genetic engineering D) habitat loss

42. If
the decomposers were removed from an ecosystem, the other organisms would
eventually
die because A) green plants would run
out of necessary minerals in the
soil B) green plants would lose their energy
source C) herbivores must eat
decomposers D) decomposers release oxygen needed by
the other organisms

43. The source of energy for an ecosystem
is A) nutrients in the soil B) water

C) sunlight D) recycled energy from decomposers

44. Fungi are primarily A) producers B) herbivores C) carnivores D) decomposers

45. If deer are placed on an
island with a constant, renewable food supply and a stable
biological
community with predators, the growth
curve after several decades would be described as a
A) J-curve [exponential] B) S-curve [logistic]

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS – 2 POINTS EACH – 10 POINTS TOTAL:
On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer
to the questions below.

46. Professor Hotsun is studying a desert
ecosystem containing fig trees, fig-eating rats, rat-
eating snakes, and
snake-eating lizards. If the fig trees produce one million kcal of
energy, about how much energy would be contained in the population ofrat-eating snakes?
A) 100,000 kcal
B) 50,000 kcal
C) 10,000 kcal
D) 1000 kcal

47. Colorblindness (Xb)
is X-linked and recessive. Blondie is
normal, and not a carrier,
but
her husband Dagwood is colorblind. If their daughter Cookie marries a
colorblind
man,
what phenotypes can Cookie expect in her sons?
A)
all normal B) all colorblind C) 1/2 colorblind, 1/2 normal

48. John has type A
blood. John’s father has type O
blood. Mary has type B blood. Mary’s mother
is type A. The possible blood types of
John and Mary’s daughters are
A)
AB only B) A or AB only C) B or AB only D) A, B, AB or O

Here is a list of mRNA codons and
their amino acids. Use this information
to answer #49 and #50:

AAU – asparagine AUC – isoleucine CAA – glutamine CAU
– histidine
CGU – arginine CUU – leucine GAA
– glutamate GAU – aspartate
GCA – alanine GGC – glycine UGU – cysteine

49. The sequence of amino acids of
Arginine-Alanine-Leucine would be coded by this
sequence
of bases on mRNA : A)
CGUGCACUU B) GUGCACAA
C) GCACGTGAA
D) GAAGCAGGC

50. A sequence of bases on a DNA strand of
GAATTACGT would code for this amino
acid
sequence:
A) Leucine-Asparagine-Alanine B) Aspartate-Glutamate-Alanine
C)
Glutamine-Cysteine- Histidine D) Leucine-Glutamate-Histidine

ESSAY QUESTIONS –
Choose 5 out of the following 7 questions to answer. Each answer is worth 9 points. Please answer on answer sheet at the end of
this exam. Be concise. The full number
of points will be awarded for correct and thorough answers. Partial credit will be awarded for less than
complete answers, so it is to your advantage to attempt an answer.
51. Describe three structures found in plant cells but not animal
cells. Describe the function of each structure, and how each benefits plant
cells but is not necessary for animal cells.

52. Your biology class is performing an osmosis experiment. You
are given three identical stalks of celery and three salt solutions of varying
solute amounts. The data table below compares the solute amount of the celery
stalks to the solutions.

Solute Amount of the Solution Water Amount of the
Solution

Solution A less than the celery stalk more water than the celery stalk
Solution B same as the celery stalk same water as the celery stalk
Solution C more than the celery stalk less water than the celery stalk

a). Identify which solution is isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic
to the celery stalk cells
b). Describe what happens when the celery stalk is placed into
each of the respective solution.

53. Dihybrid cross. The kernels (seeds) on an ear of corn are all
offspring of one set of parents. There
are 2 pairs of alleles on separate homologous chromosomes (purple or yellow
kernels on one pair, plump or shrunken kernels on another). Yellow (Y) is dominant to purple (y) and
plump (P) is dominant to shrunken (p).
If the genotype of parent plants are Yypp and YyPp, what are the
expected probabilities of the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring
kernels? Explain your reasoning.

54. A population of grasshoppers
in the Kansas prairie has two color phenotypes, with 90% of the grasshoppers
green and 10% brown. Typically in the last century, the prairie receives
adequate rain to maintain healthy green grass, but for the last decade the
prairie suffers a severe drought and is also invaded by a bird that eats
grasshoppers.

Briefly explain in terms of the four parts of natural
selection listed below howthe population of grasshoppers would be expected to change during
the drought years.

overproduction –

variation –

competition & survival –

differential reproduction –

55. Explain why top carnivores, such as eagles and tigers, have low population
densities in nature. Include processes
of the energy pyramid (trophic levels) in your answer.

56. Describe an environmental problem that you feel is the most urgent
worldwide. Which areas of the world are suffering the most from the problem? Propose a solution to the problem.

57. Apply your knowledge
of the scientific method to design an experiment. We will use a real situation from my research
project in Olympic National Park. There
is no single correct answer to this exercise.
Your proposed experimental design may well be better than the ones that
I actually used. It is more difficult to
design an experiment in the field than in a lab, because there are so many
variables in nature.

Observation. When Olympic National Park
was established over 60 years ago, it included scattered homesteads with small
fields that were farmed for hay. The
farms were abandoned, but many of the fields still remain today. Trees from the surrounding rain forest have
been unable to invade the fields, in spite of fertile soils and abundant
precipitation. This is unusual because
abandoned fields that are surrounded by forest in most parts of the world are
readily colonized by trees and become forest in a few decades. [The purpose of the experiment was both
theoretical, to examine why these fields differed from the standard model of
old-field succession in ecology, and practical, to provide knowledge to the
Park Service who do not like non-native plants in our National Parks.]

The
fields in Olympic National Park are mostly covered by non-native grasses that
form a thick sod. Large amounts of
wind-blown seeds of the surrounding Sitka spruce trees fall onto the fields
each year, but the seeds are very small.

General Hypothesis. Sitka spruce trees fail to
colonize the fields because competition from the thick grasses prevents the
establishment of spruce seedlings.

Your assignment:

Using your knowledge of the scientific
method, design an experiment to
test this general hypothesis. Your
experiment must include and identify a control group and an experimental
group. You may modify the general
hypothesis into a specific hypothesis, which is more limited and directly fits
your experiment, if you wish. Explain
how the data that you collect from your experiment will allow you to
make a conclusion about your hypothesis (in your explanation, DO NOT make
up imaginary results).

When considering your methods, you may
assume that you have access to spruce seeds and any tools or materials that you
might need to manipulate the environment for your experiment.

.

MULTIPLE
CHOICE ANSWER SHEET

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ESSAY
ANSWER SHEET – Take as much space as you need to answer each
question. Provide concise answers in
your own words. Do not cut and paste
from other sources. (Just type n/a after
the number for the two questions that you do not answer.)

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.