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One of the keys of psychoanalytic theory is the idea that problems in one of the psychosexual stages could result in dysfunctional behavior later in life. Can the Freudian theory of psychosexual development be accurately applied to a contemporary society based upon the post-modern worldview? Why or why not?Please provide a 150-250 word response to the above question. Please cite at least 1 reference from a peer reviewed article or journal. Please also provide reference for article/journal used in APA 6th edition format.