Question 1
 
Select the  number of drops per minute to be administered for a 1200-ml IV given over 5 hours using an administration set labeled 10 drops per ml.
Select one:
 a. 400 drops/min
 b. 240 drops/min
 c. 40 drops/min 
 d. 4 drops/min
Question 2
 
 
 
 
Which of the following statements is true of cobalamin (vitamin B12)?
Select one:
 a. Cobalamin is primarily found is green vegetables and fruits.
 b. Strict vegetarians are more likely to develop a deficiency of cobalamin. 
 c. The anemia resulting from cobalamin deficiency is a microcytic hypochromic anemia.
 d. Cobalamin has recognized therapeutic value in the treatment of hepatitis, allergies, and sterility.
Question 3
 
 
 
 
Gastric juices mainly consist of _____.
Select one:
 a. HCl and gastrin
 b. HCl and pepsin 
 c. sodium bicarbonate and gastrin
 d. sodium bicarbonate and pepsin
Question 4
 
 
 
 
A patient with peptic ulcer complains of severe duodenal pain. Which of the following treatment options is most likely to relieve this pain?
Select one:
 a. Administration of food 
 b. Administration of histamine H1-receptor antagonists
 c. Administration of calcium channel blockers
 d. Administration of cholinergic drugs
Question 5
 
 
 
 
Identify the primary mechanism of action of digoxin.
Select one:
 a. Release of nitric oxide
 b. Blockade of angiotensin receptors
 c. Blockade or norepinephrine receptors
 d. Increase of myocardial contraction 
Question 6
 
 
 
 
Identify the type of depression in which there is a period of shock followed by a period of readjustment and resolve that life must go on.
Select one:
 a. Exogenous depression 
 b. Mania
 c. Major depressive disorder
 d. None of the above
Question 7
 
 
 
 
The activation of the parasympathetic division will not directly reduce:
Select one:
 a. gastrointestinal motility.
 b. blood pressure. 
 c. urinary motility.
 d. skeletal muscle contraction.
Question 8
 
 
 
 
Nicotine gum (Nicorette) has been classified as _____ by the FDA.
Select one:
 a. Pregnancy Category A
 b. Pregnancy Category B
 c. Pregnancy Category C
 d. Pregnancy Category D 
Question 9
 
 
 
 
Ectopic foci are often caused due to:
Select one:
 a. an increase in the activity of the sinoatrial (SA) node.
 b. an increase in the activity of the atrioventricular (AV) node.
 c. a delay or blockage in the conduction of electrical impulses. 
 d. a decrease in the number of cholinergic neurons innervating the heart.
Question 10
 
 
 
 
Which of the following statements is true of the use of droperidol?
Select one:
 a. It produces the best antiemetic effect when it is administered at the start of a surgical procedure.
 b. Its use has declined since its association with respiratory problems.
 c. It is not administered to patients predisposed to developing cardiac arrhythmia 
 d. None of these are
Question 11
 
 
 
 
What will be the effect of taking two aspirin tablets instead of one?
Select one:
 a. The analgesic effect of the drug will decrease.
 b. The analgesic effect of the drug will increase. 
 c. There will be no change in the analgesic effect of the drug.
 d. The drug will result in adverse toxic effects.
Question 12
 
 
 
 
Identify the term that refers to the liquid portion of a solution that is capable of dissolving another substance.
Select one:
 a. Solute
 b. Plasma
 c. Solvent 
 d. None of these
Question 13
 
 
 
 
Which of the following is true of treating iron deficiency?
Select one:
 a. Anemia caused by a nutritional lack of iron cannot be treated with oral iron supplements.
 b. Vitamin C should not be used in combination with iron supplements in the treatment of iron deficiency as it reduces the intestinal absorption of iron.
 c. Iron dextran (INFeD) can be used to treat iron deficiency in patients who have impaired gastrointestinal absorption. 
 d. Long-term iron-deficient patients should be treated with 20 to 50 mg of iron per day for at least 6 months.
Question 14
 
 
 
 
Select the nitrate drug that is used prophylactically to prevent the occurrence of anginal attacks.
Select one:
 a. Nitroglycerin sublingual pump
 b. Nitroglycerin for IV infusion
 c. Sublingual nitroglycerin
 d. Nitroglycerin extended-release capsules 
Question 15
 
 
 
 
Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed by the intravenous injection of:
Select one:
 a. edrophonium. 
 b. neostigmine.
 c. pyridostigmine.
 d. ambenonium.
Question 16
 
 
 
 
One way to improve compliance for a patient with arthritis would be to:
Select one:
 a. encourage the patient to take medication on an empty stomach.
 b. suggest not using child safety caps on medication bottles. 
 c. encourage the patient to read medication information literature.
 d. allow the patient to identify the drugs he requires on his own.
Question 17
 
 
 
 
The pituitary gland is attached to the _____.
Select one:
 a. thalamus
 b. hypothalamus 
 c. pons
 d. cerebellum
Question 18
 
 
 
 
Pain resulting from abnormal signals or nerves damaged by entrapment, amputation, or diabetes is known as _____.
Select one:
 a. hyperalgesia
 b. dysphoria
 c. referred pain
 d. neuropathic pain 
Question 19
 
 
 
 
Orion laboratories, a pharmaceutical manufacturing company, manufactures the drug cetirizine and markets the tablets under the name “Alzer.” In this case, cetirizine is the _____ name of the drug.
Select one:
 a. proprietary
 b. generic 
 c. trade
 d. brand
Question 20
 
 
 
 
Among the factors that affect drug distribution, the factor that plays the biggest role in determining the concentration of a drug that penetrates the brain by overcoming the blood–brain barrier is:
Select one:
 a. lipid solubility. 
 b. blood circulation.
 c. plasma protein binding.
 d. GI absorption rate.
Question 21
 
 
 
 
Which of the following statements is true of the vasodilator drug diazoxide?
Select one:
 a. Structurally, diazoxide is similar to the thiazide diuretics. 
 b. Diazoxide is a very potent vasodilator and has significant diuretic activity.
 c. Its hypotensive effects last for 1 to 2 hours.
 d. Diazoxide is used when the BP needs to be lowered gradually.
Question 22
 
Select the group of drug agents that are listed in increasing order of their duration of action.
Select one:
 a. Albuterol (Proventil), Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair), Tiotropium (Spiriva) 
 b. Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair), Albuterol (Proventil), Tiotropium (Spiriva) 
 c. Albuterol (Proventil), Tiotropium (Spiriva), Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair)
 d. Tiotropium (Spiriva), Albuterol (Proventil), Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair)
Question 23
 
 
 
 
Identify the role that the autonomic nervous system plays in the development of asthma.
Select one:
 a. Parasympathetic stimulation by epinephrine (beta-2 receptor) produces the bronchodilation that is characteristic of asthma.
 b. Parasympathetic activation through the release of acetylcholine produces bronchoconstriction and increased secretion of mucus. 
 c. Sympathetic activation through the release of acetylcholine produces bronchoconstriction and increased secretion of mucus.
 d. Sympathetic activation through the release of epinephrine produces bronchoconstriction and increased secretion of mucus.
.
Question 24
 
 
 
 
Omeprazole works by _____.
Select one:
 a. inhibiting a hydrogen–potassium pump in mucosal cells
 b. inhibiting a sodium–potassium pump in mucosal cells
 c. inhibiting a hydrogen–potassium pump in parietal cells 
 d. inhibiting a sodium–potassium pump in parietal cells
Question 25
 
Which of the following combinations of diseases increases the risk for limb amputation?
Select one:
 a. Hypercholesterolemia and hypertension 
 b. Hypercholesterolemia and hemophilia
 c. Hypercholesterolemia and anemia
 d. Hypercholesterolemia and diabetes
Question 26
 
 
 
 
Differentiate between tolerance, antagonism, and synergism in order to select the drug interaction that occurs during antagonism.
Select one:
 a. The combined effect of two drugs, by the same mechanism of action, is equal to the sum of their individual effects.
 b. The combined effect of two drugs, by different mechanisms of action, is equal to the sum of their individual effects.
 c. The combined effect of two drugs is less than the sum of their individual effects. 
 d. The combined effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects.
Question 27
 
 
 
 
How does anxiety affect the human body?
Select one:
 a. It enhances the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system.
 b. It deactivates the reticular activating system.
 c. It triggers the hyperarousal of the cerebral cortex. 
 d. It decreases the activity of the limbic system.
Question 28
 
 
 
 
Why do some patients develop nausea and vomiting after taking aspirin?
Select one:
 a. Salicylates stimulate the microsomal metabolizing system in the liver, resulting in an increase in the amount of acid produced in the GI tract.
 b. Salicylates stimulate the mucopolysaccharides in the stomach causing hydrochloric acid erosion that leads to nausea and vomiting.
 c. Salicylates stimulate the medullary center known as the chemoreceptor trigger zone that directly excites the vomiting center so that emesis may occur. 
 d. None of the above are .
Question 29
 
 
 
 
Ella has been taking large doses of a particular neuromuscular blocker over a very long period of time. Consequently, she has developed signs of respiratory paralysis and has severe trouble breathing. After Dr. Kurt examines her, he concludes that Ella’s deteriorating health is the result of the growing concentration of the neuromuscular blocker drug in her system. He prescribes the drug neostigmine to relieve her symptoms. How will the drug neostigmine help counteract the effects of the neuromuscular blocker drug?
Select one:
 a. It will inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase so that acetylcholine (ACH) accumulates within the synaptic junctions. 
 b. It will attach itself to the synaptic vesicles containing ACH and prevent ACH from being released into the synaptic cleft.
 c. It will damage the nicotinic-muscle receptors, thereby altering the ability of these receptors to become stimulated.
 d. It will enhance the activity of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase so that the concentration of ACH in the synaptic cleft decreases.
Question 30
 
 
 
 
Identify the major pharmacokinetic differences that exist between the drug effects of nonselective beta-blockers and selective beta-1 blockers that can alter their therapeutic responses.
Select one:
 a. Duration of action and extent of drug metabolism 
 b. Onset of action and extent of drug metabolism
 c. Duration of action and extent of drug excretion
 d. Onset of action and extent of drug absorption
Question 31
 
 
 
 
Select the stage of the sleep cycle that corresponds with the ability to dream.
Select one:
 a. NREM stage 1
 b. REM 
 c. NREM stage 2
 d. None of the above
Question 32
 
 
 
 
Which of the following factors can affect drug metabolism by reducing the efficiency with which organs function?
Select one:
 a. Genetics
 b. Nutritional deficiency
 c. Disease
 d. All of these 
Question 33
 
 
 
 
In the context of the factors of individual variation that alter the effect of a drug, select the statement that best describes the placebo effect.
Select one:
 a. Excitement can lead to perceived symptom improvement.
 b. Positive attitude can lead to perceived symptom improvement. 
 c. Less body fat can lead to perceived symptom improvement.
 d. None of the above statements are .
Question 34
 
 
 
 
Which of the following terms is used to describe chest pain caused by insufficient blood flow to the heart?
Select one:
 a. Angina pectoris 
 b. Hypertension
 c. Arrhythmia
 d. Tachycardia
Question 35
 
 
 
 
Alex is suffering from Parkinson’s disease and is undergoing drug therapy. In spite of taking his medications regularly, Alex has started experiencing alternating periods of mobility and immobility. When he informs his doctor of these episodes, his doctor tells him that he’s experiencing a phenomenon that is known as the “on-off phenomenon.” What will Alex’s doctor instruct him to do?
Select one:
 a. He will tell Alex to take his drug doses around meal times.
 b. He will tell Alex to take smaller doses of the drug at more frequent intervals. 
 c. He will tell Alex to take protein supplements along with the medication.
 d. He will increase Alex’s dosage.
Question 36
 
 
 
 
The enzymes that are most affected by the process of aging are those that play a role in _____ drugs.
Select one:
 a. oxidizing 
 b. reducing
 c. chelating
 d. alkylating
Question 37
 
 
 
 
Identify the clinical indication for the use of benzodiazepines.
Select one:
 a. Reduction of anxiety 
 b. Increase in mental alertness
 c. Increase in desire for physical activity
 d. Decrease in drowsiness
Question 38
 
 
 
 
How do thiazides and loop diuretics differ in their mechanisms of action?
Select one:
 a. They have different outcomes in the context of sodium retention.
 b. They act at different sites in the kidney. 
 c. Thiazides are more potent than loop diuretics.
 d. Thiazides cause hypokalemia, while loop diuretics cause hyperkalemia.
Question 39
 
 
 
 
_____ is a protein normally produced by the kidneys that participates in red blood cell homeostasis.
Select one:
 a. Intrinsic factor
 b. Erythropoietin 
 c. Transcobalamin II
 d. Transferrin
Question 40
 
 
 
 
In terms of patient safety and ease of drug administration, identify the most convenient route of drug administration for a patient with a busy lifestyle and a hectic schedule.
Select one:
 a. Intramuscular administration
 b. Oral administration 
 c. Topical administration
 d. Intravenous administration
Question 41
 
 
 
 
Two naturally occurring opiates derived from the poppy plant are:
Select one:
 a. morphine and heroin.
 b. morphine and codeine. 
 c. codeine and heroin.
 d. codeine and marijuana.
Question 42
 
 
 
 
Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.
Select one:
 a. Regional nerve block
 b. Infiltration anesthesia 
 c. Topical application
 d. Cryoanesthesia
Question 43
 
 
 
 
What unexpected adverse effect can elderly patients experience when taking an antihistaminic drug?
Select one:
 a. Respiratory depression
 b. Paradoxical stimulation 
 c. Extreme hypotension
 d. Insomnia
Question 44
 
 
 
 
In the context of the FDA Pregnancy Categories for drugs, identify the proper category for a drug for which studies on animals have not demonstrated fetal risk and no studies have been performed in pregnant women.
Select one:
 a. Pregnancy Category A
 b. Pregnancy Category B 
 c. Pregnancy Category D
 d. None of the above
Question 45
 
 
 
 
Which of the following drugs is rarely prescribed because of the high incidence of adverse effects?
Select one:
 a. Valproic acid
 b. Lamotrigine
 c. Diazepam
 d. Trimethadione 
Question 46
 
 
 
 
The formation of _____ practically guarantees the clotting cascade to proceed.
Select one:
 a. clotting factor VIII
 b. vitamin K
 c. Stuart factor
 d. thromboplastin 
Question 47
 
 
 
 
Which of the following medications is used for its sedative effects in the treatment of hallucinogenic drug intoxication?
Select one:
 a. Opioids
 b. Benzodiazepines 
 c. Amphetamines
 d. Antidepressants
Question 48
Competitive antagonism occurs when:
Select one:
 a. two agonists compete for the same receptor.
 b. an agonist and an antagonist compete for the same receptor. 
 c. an antagonist directly inactivates an agonist.
 d. an antagonist cancels out the effect of an agonist by binding to a unique receptor.
Question 49
Explain the mechanism of action of emollients that are used as laxatives.
Select one:
 a. They work by releasing carbon dioxide gas that pushes against the rectum wall and induces muscle contraction and stool movement.
 b. They soak up water and soften the stool, which results in a swelling action that distends the rectum and initiates defecation.
 c. They consist of a mixture of sodium and magnesium salts that attract water, which results in the formation of a more liquid stool.
 d. They penetrate the fecal mass and ease the passage of the stool through the rectum due to their oily nature. 
Question 50
Which of the following statements is true of anemia?
Select one:
 a. All forms of anemia are inherited.
 b. Inherited anemias can be successfully treated or cured with drug replacement therapy.
 c. Anemia is typically caused by an abnormal increase in the number of circulating red blood cells.
 d. The characteristic symptoms of anemia include weakness, fatigue, irritability, and pallor.